| (Copyright) by Dennis J. Preato (San Diego, California) |
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| “Let the women keep silent in the churches; for they are not permitted to speak, but let them subject themselves, just as the Law also says. And if they desire to learn anything, let them ask their own husbands at home; for it is improper for a woman to speak in church.” (NASB, 1 Cor. 14:34-35) First Corinthians 14:34-35 presents the reader with three interpretive options. First, are verses 34-35 a declarative statement written from the pen of the apostle Paul with the intention of forbidding women to speak in church? If so, what do these verses mean for the church today? Does Scripture prohibit women from speaking in the church forever or was this only a temporary and cultural prohibition? Second, are these verses an interpolation, meaning a later addition or alteration to Scripture not written by the apostle Paul but by an uninspired writer? If so, then verses 34-35 should be rejected by all Bible readers because they were not written under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. Third, are verses 34-35 a Corinthian slogan or rabbinic saying that Paul repeats for the purpose of rebuking? Paul rebukes the oral saying beginning with verse 36. If so, then verses 34-35 do not prohibit women from speaking in church. Whether one concludes these verses are a slogan or an interpolation of Scripture, the effect is the same. They do not prohibit women from speaking, teaching or preaching the word of God in church. This article provides objective evidence that verses 34-35 do not represent the inspired writings of the Apostle Paul or any other inspired writer. These verses are best understood as a slogan or rabbinic saying based on the Jewish “oral law,” not the written word of God. Therefore, these verses cannot be used to prohibit women from pulpit ministry within the church. Significance of Resolving These Issues Resolving these issues is essential for a proper understanding of how ministry in the church was intended to be carried out. First Corinthians 14:34-35 has traditionally been linked with 1 Timothy 2:8-15 by leaders in the Church to systematically deny women the right to utilize their God-given gifts in ministry. However, according to D. A. Carson, selectively linking certain verses together creates fallacies and “affects the interpretation of other texts.” Carson points out that disputes in Christianity, including the issue of women in the Church, “revolve around inconsistencies, errors, and fallacies in this area.”[1] Another problem arises from the fact that verses 34-35 appear in every English Bible translation as a declarative statement. The issues relating to authorship or that these verses might be viewed as a quotation are non-existent in most Bibles. The average Bible reader is generally unaware of these interpretative possibilities. Only by examining this text in its immediate context, applying sound rules of biblical interpretation, and looking at the cultural and historical backgrounds will the original author’s intent be made evident. The purpose of this article is to help Bible readers to better understand what Scripture intends to convey in this passage. Differences in Christianity about the extent of women in ministry remain to this day. However, the historical evidence reveals that both men and women were active participants in all areas of ministry in the early Christian church. Scripture, the external writings of church leaders, historical and archeological records, and church artifacts testify that women served as ministers, deacons, church leaders, apostles and even bishops. Historical Background and Literary Context Corinth was a city of Greco-Roman culture whose inhabitants had a reputation for sexual immorality and depravity. The Corinthian church was characterized by divisions. First Corinthians was written to correct a number of problems and to answer a series of questions that were raised by the church members. Paul answers questions concerning marriage and divorce in chapter 7, food sacrificed to idols in chapter 8, two questions regarding worship in chapter 11, and the proper use of spiritual gifts in the church in chapters 12-14. Conduct in worship is addressed in chapter 14 where Paul describes and contrasts the proper use of prophecy and tongues. He concludes that things be done in an orderly manner (v. 40). ARE VERSES 34-35 A DECLARATIVE STATEMENT? Those scholars who believe that the apostle Paul is making a declarative statement exhibit a wide range of thought about the applicability and why Paul may have written these verses. Following are examples reflective of such diversity of opinion of 1 Corinthians 14:34-35. Women must never speak, prophesy or speak in tongues in church. One 19th century Bible commentator holds this extreme and minority view that denies the right of women to speak, prophesy or speak in tongues by saying: “This rule is positive, explicit, and universal … women were to keep silence … take no part in speaking foreign languages and of prophecy.” This commentator’s dogmatic statements are totally unjustified and without merit. He disregards Scripture’s declaration that women will prophesy (Joel 2:28; Acts 2:17-18) and have already done so in the Corinthian church (1 Cor. 11:5). He believed the phrase, “as saith the Law” in 1 Cor. 14:34 was linked to Gen. 3.16 but offered no scriptural evidence in support of his opinion.[2] Women may pray, prophesy, teach or speak as long as they do so in an orderly manner. J. D. Douglas, editor of the New Commentary on the Whole Bible admits the statement Let your women keep silence in the churches is difficult because Paul had previously spoken about women praying and prophesying in church. He writes that, “Women should not teach or speak in any way that causes disturbance in a church meeting. But we cannot dogmatically say that women did not and could not pray and/or prophesy in church meetings.” This commentator suggests that the apostle Paul is concerned about what is proper in the church meetings and rebukes the Corinthians for their pride beginning in verse 36. Additionally, he believes the reference to the “law” refers to Genesis 3.16 but offered no support for his belief. [3 ] Some married women need to exercise self-control. David Lowery, a professor at Dallas Seminary, acknowledges the difficulty in determining the exact meaning of 1 Cor. 14:34-35. He acknowledges that women did participate in worship services by exercising the gifts of the Spirit. He suggests that Paul wrote these words because “church members needed to exercise self-control,” not only in the context of tongues and prophecy but that some women were causing a disturbance. He writes: “Paul then wanted silence on the part of married women whose husbands were present in the assembly, but he permitted the participation of other women when properly adorned (1 Cor. 11:2-16). Such silence would express their subordinate (but not inferior) relationship to their husbands.” The real issue, he said, is one of self-control. This commentator makes no attempt to account for the expression just as the Law also says. [4 ] Married women were uneducated and had nothing of value to say. Leon Morris, author of The First Epistle of Paul to the Corinthians, also recognizes a problem with a natural reading of the passage as Paul had already encouraged women to pray and to prophesy. He reminds us that women were uneducated in the first century. In that context, he states that the “Corinthian women should keep quiet in church if for no other reason than because they could have little or nothing worthwhile to say.” He reasons that Paul is telling the wives to ask questions of their husbands at home and not disturb the assembly. [5] He apparently assumes this passage applies only to married women. Women were basically uneducated in the first century as were many of the men. He does not discuss single women or what “law” is being referenced. Married women must not interrupt the proceeding by asking questions. F. F. Bruce in The New Century Bible Commentary I & II Corinthians also notes that Paul had already recognized a woman’s right to pray and prophesy in the church. Therefore, the imposition of silence and forbidding women to speak is only in the context of interrupting the proceedings by asking questions of their husbands. Asking questions should be done at home. Bruce carefully notes that the expressions they are not permitted to speak (v. 34) and it is shameful for a woman to speak in church (v. 35) is limited in application and refers only to the interrupting of proceedings. In commenting on the phrase, “as even the law says,” Bruce believes the appeal to Gen. 3.16 is unlikely. He thinks the reference to which Paul is alluding to is Gen. 1:26 and 2:21 but offers no support for his opinion. [6] Summary Discussion of Scholars’ Comments The vast majority of scholars who claim that Paul is making a declarative statement limit this prohibition regarding speaking to only those instances where such speech causes a disturbance in the church. Women, they say, did speak, pray in tongues, and prophesy in the early church. The apparent prohibition based on women being uneducated was a cultural reality in the first century. This condition no longer exists. The issue of self-control and not causing a disturbance in church applies equally to men and women and appears more related to the excesses of speaking in tongues and prophecy than in anything else in chapter 14. Basically, all commentators agree with Paul’s emphasis that all things be done properly and in an orderly manner (v. 40) in the church. Most also assume that the “law” somehow refers to a specific Genesis passage. But does it? WHY THE LAW DOES NOT REFER TO SCRIPTURE The testimony of the Old Testament. The phrase, “just as the law also says” is not supported by the Old Testament. It is the major weakness of the view that 1 Cor. 14:34-35 represents Paul’s declarative statement that women are not permitted to speak. None of these commentators have adequately discussed or resolved how the words, Let the women keep silent in the churches; for they are not permitted to speak are supported by the Old Testament verses they cite. The Genesis citations quoted by these scholars (Gen. 1:26, 2:21, 3:16) have nothing to do with denying women the right to speak in church. The reason given in verse 34 that women are not permitted to speak relates directly to the phrase, “just as the law also says.” Only the phrase: “but let them subject themselves” is a possible allusion to Gen. 3:16. But the subject phrase, “just as the law also says,” contradicts Paul’s known teachings that we have been liberated from the law (Rom. 3:28; 6:14, 7:16, 8:2; Gal 3:11, 13, 4:5, 5:18, etc.). We have been liberated from the law. Since Paul claims that we have been liberated from the law, how could he appeal to it? Paul also fought against the religious zealots of his day who tried to impose the requirements of the Old Testament’s written and oral laws on New Testament believers in Christ. These verses cannot represent the apostle Paul’s inspired words. Why? The reason is there is nothing written in the canon of Scripture from which Paul could have quoted to support such a declaration. Such an appeal would also contradict Paul’s previously stated position in 1 Corinthians that women can pray and prophesy in church. Paul does not refer to written Scripture in this manner. In the entire epistle of 1 Corinthians, whenever Paul quotes from and specially uses the term “law” (meaning written Scripture) he does so with specific intent, focus, and stylistic writing. For example, in 1 Cor. 9:8-9 Paul writes, Does not the law also say the same? For it is written in the law of Moses: “You shall not muzzle an ox while it is treading out the grain.” After referring to the law as saying something, Paul tells us that it is written and immediately quotes Deut 25:4 verbatim. Also, in 1 Cor. 14:21 after Paul writes, “In the Law it is written,” he immediately quotes from Isaiah 28:11-12. Again, in 1 Cor. 4:6 where Paul generally refers to Scripture, he tells the Corinthians to learn through us the meaning of the saying “Do not go beyond what is written.” In every case when Paul specially refers to Scripture, he says it is written (1 Cor. 1:19, 1:31, 2:9, 3:19, 10:7, 15:45) and consistently quotes from the Old Testament to prove his point. However, in 1 Corinthians 14:34 the passage simply states just as the Law also says without reference to it being written. Why would Paul suddenly change his consistent writing style in this verse only? Why doesn’t Paul even say it is written or even quote from the Old Testament as he has previously done in every instance throughout this epistle? Why? The reason is more likely these are not Paul’s words. Either Paul was quoting a non-biblical source, such as a slogan or rabbinic saying or verses 34-35 represent an interpolation, an alteration of Scripture. In either interpretive option, these words did not originate with Paul. Problems with Inconsistent Quotation Marks. Bible translators have been inconsistent in the way they translate and present verses throughout 1 Corinthians. Some Bibles put quotes around certain verses to indicate that Paul is quoting another source, and other Bibles don’t utilize any quotes. For example, in 1 Corinthians we read: “All things are lawful for me” (6:12; 10:23) and “Food is meant for the stomach and the stomach for food” (6:13). These verses are marked as quotations in the NCV, NIV, NLT, and NRSV; but they are not shown with quotation marks in the ASV, KJV, NASB, and NKJV. In this instance, the NCV, NIV, NLT and NRSV correctly indicate that Paul is quoting a slogan that the Corinthians used in order to justify their immorality. Another example of where Bibles could use quotation marks and do not is 1 Cor. 7:1. Paul writes: Now concerning the things about which you wrote, it is good for a man not to touch a woman. The second underlined phrase should be placed in “quotes” since Paul is alluding to one of the questions posed by the Corinthians. He is quoting them. Origen, an early Church leader (ca. a.d. 200) considered 1 Corinthians 7:1 as introducing a slogan. [7] Bible translators present 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 without quotation marks, which does not mean that verses 34-35 must be read as a declarative statement. The New Revised Standard Version (NRSV) does enclose 14:33b-36 in parentheses to characterize it as a parenthetical comment meaning that it does not fit in smoothly with the surrounding texts. Unfortunately, most Bible readers are unaware of the significance of such comments. They generally read these verses as a declaration forbidding women from speaking in church. Paul is not writing a declarative statement. Since Paul is not making a declaration, then how are we to interpret verses 34-35? Only two choices remain. These verses either represent an interpolation of Scripture or a slogan that Paul immediately refutes. ARE VERSES 34-35 AN INTERPOLATION? Defining an Interpolation. An interpolation means a manuscript textual problem exists. The verses were added later by a scribe. Therefore, these verses are not the inspired writings of the apostle Paul and are to be disregarded. Additionally, some Bibles, such as the NLT, ISV, and NRSV, include a footnote stating that some ancient manuscripts put verses 34-35 after verse 40. However, such footnote disclosures are of no practical use to the average Bible reader. Most readers would not fully understand the implication of such statements. If these verses represent an interpolation of Scripture, then any discussion of what verses 34-35 mean is a meaningless exercise since they represent a later addition to Scripture by an uninspired writer. However, since these verses do appear, then all Bible readers need to consider whether these verses are an interpolation. Examining the Scholars’ Comments. The arguments supporting verses 34-35 as an interpolation have been extensively presented in the writings of well-known scholars C.K. Barrett, Hans Conzelman, Gordon D. Fee and others. This section recaps the major points of this view as expressed by Gordon Fee. [8] Gordon Fee, Professor Emeritus of New Testament Studies, Regent College, Vancouver, B.C. Canada, says: “the two text-critical criteria of transcriptional and intrinsic probability combine to cast considerable doubt on their authenticity.” On transcriptional grounds, Fee states that all Western manuscripts and a few Latin church fathers place verses 34-35 after verse 40. Fee follows Bengel’s rule that the preferred reading is the one which best explains the origin of the other readings. He concludes that the shortest reading best matches Bengel’s principle and that verses 34-35 were subsequently written in as a marginal gloss in two different places. Fee challenges proponents of the authenticity of verses 34-35 to explain how the Western manuscripts came into existence. He notes that “all the surviving evidence indicates that this was the only way 1 Corinthians appeared in the Latin Church for at least three hundred years.” Fee states that proponents of authenticity “must at least offer an adequate answer as to how this arrangement came into existence if Paul wrote them originally.” [9] On intrinsic probability grounds, meaning what the author is most likely to have written, Fee argues these verses are not authentic for at least three reasons. First, verses 34-35 impede the flow of Paul’s guidelines concerning tongues and prophecy. Second, these verses stand in obvious contradiction to Paul’s teaching in 11:5 where women are permitted not only to speak but to prophesy. Third, the usage of certain terms “seem quite foreign to Paul.” [10] Gordon Fee also argues for an interpolation based on the internal biblical evidence. He says the real problem lies with the phrase, “even as the Law says.” Fee goes on to say that Paul always cites a text to prove his point, but nowhere does he appeal to the Law to support Christian behavior. [11] Carroll D. Osburn, Professor of New Testament at Abilene Christian University, notes that Gordon Fee is correct on transcriptional grounds in following Bengel’s rule and is correct on intrinsic grounds that the flow of thought is important to the resolution of the problem. Osburn states that the text “does make sense if vv. 34-35 are removed from the context.” However, according to Osburn, the problem with accepting the view that 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 represents an interpolation is the lack of enough textual evidence to support this claim. He claims the evidence for the entire Western text is overstated and is limited only to manuscripts from northern Italy and Irish monastics. [12] Osburn also suggests that Paul is not really contradicting his statements in 1 Cor. 11:2-16. He states two different issues: praying and prophesying by women in contrast to “some wives continually ‘piping up’ in the assembly in chap. 14.” Furthermore, Paul is dealing with a particular problem in Corinth, and 1 Corinthians 14:33b-36 neither teaches nor suggests anything regarding patriarchalism or female subjection. According to Osburn, it is not the extent that women may participate in the work and worship of the church but the manner. Paul does not ban women from speaking but only stops the verbal misconduct of certain wives who are disrupting the assembly. [13] David W. Odell-Scott, Professor of Philosophy at Kent State University, offers a possible solution to the interpolation debate. He suggests that the editors of the Western manuscripts deleted the verses from their normal location between verses 33 and 36 and moved them in order to shield the verses from Paul’s rebuke that begins in verse 36. He suspects “the editors shrewdly manipulated the text to serve their purposes,” and that they “sought to render the text in such a way that it would be consistent with what the editors expected to find in scripture,” meaning that the editors of the Western text did not view Paul’s rebuke of the silence and subordination of women as a “viable possibility” given the historical culture and society’s norm of that day. [14] Odell-Scott actually views verses 34-35 as a quotation that Paul repeats word for word in order to rebuke. Summary Discussion of Scholars’ Comments. Gordon Fee is correct to say Paul did not write these words as a declarative statement and that an interpolation of Scripture occurs. Carroll Osburn is correct to say that 1 Cor. 14-34-35 does not support patriarchalism or female subjection, and the interpolation theory is not sufficiently supported by a wide range of manuscripts. David W. Odell-Scott offers a plausible explanation as to how and why this interpolation came into being and offers support for the preferred quotation view. VERSES 34-35 ARE A QUOTATION This interpretative view states that verses 34-35 are meant to be understood as a Corinthian slogan or quotation that Paul is repeating. These verses are not a declarative statement that the Holy Spirit inspired Paul to write intending to silence women from speaking in church. The arguments against these verses being Pauline have been previously presented. The Holy Spirit did inspire Paul to include this quotation for the purpose of rebuking them and their words. Paul’s rebuke begins in verse 36. The Holy Spirit also inspired Peter on the day of Pentecost to quote the prophecy of Joel 2:28 which says that men and women shall prophesy (Acts 2:18). Perhaps the obvious must be stated: In order to prophesy or speak in tongues you cannot be silent, but you have to open your mouth and speak! In 1 Corinthians 12-14, Paul speaks to his audience at great length about the proper use of spiritual gifts; and he expects that such manifestations of the Spirit be done in an orderly manner. The Cultural Background. The writings of Greek philosophers provide external documentation informing us of the mindset that permeated the ancient city of Corinth. In Greek society, women were clearly held in low regard. For example, Plato (424-347 BC) ascribed to the inferior status of women by stating: “It is only males who are created directly by the gods and are given souls.” Aristotle (384-322 BC) added, “women are defective by nature” because “a woman is as it were an infertile male,” and males command superior intelligence. [15] Under existing Roman family law, the father had complete household authority. A husband could punish his wife in any way including killing her, and he could make love to other women with impunity. [16] Therefore, it is not unreasonable, given the Greek cultural background of Corinth, to see how various derogatory statements about women permeated that culture and society. Also, by the time of the first century, the Jewish system of traditions and oral sayings were well established. Examining the Scholars’ Comments and Evidence Based on a detailed examination of Greek manuscripts, Dr. John Gustavson states, “Paul never wrote these words as a ‘commandment of the Lord’ but was simply quoting what the Judaizers in the Corinthian church were saying.” He goes on to say that “there is not one trace from Genesis to Malachi of any such prohibition of women to literally keep silent in the church nor is there a single word in the whole ‘law of Moses’ dealing with the subject.” [17] So what “law” is the author referring to or quoting? Gordon Fee says this “law” refers to an external source, meaning “an oral understanding of Torah such as found in rabbinic Judaism.” [18] Gustavson agrees and points out that the Jewish Oral Law taught the silencing of women and cites the Talmud that states it is “a shame for a woman to let her voice be heard among men.” He also notes that Paul never appealed to the “law” for the guidance of the Church of Christ. On the contrary, he declared that believers were dead to the law by the body of Christ” (Rom. 7:4) so that they might serve in newness of spirit and not the oldness of the letter (Rom. 7:6). [19] Adam Clarke (1762-1832) represents one of the earliest post-reformists biblical scholar who said that 1 Cor. 14:34-35 “was a Jewish ordinance” because “women were not permitted to teach in the assemblies or even to ask questions.” He noted that “The rabbis taught that ‘a woman should know nothing but the use of her distaff.'” Clarke quotes the harsh and misogynist “sayings of Rabbi Eliezer, as delivered, Bammidbar Rabba, sec. 9, fol. 204, as both worthy of remark ‘Let the words of the law be burned, rather than that they should be delivered to women.'” [20] Dr. Katharine C. Bushnell (1856-1946), a physician, missionary, and Bible scholar fluent in Hebrew and Greek notes that vv. 34-35 refer to some external rule separate from Scripture. Bushnell quotes the great 19th century German lexicographer Schleusner who said the expression as also saith the law “refers to the Oral Law of the Jews” noting that “in the Old Testament no precept concerning this matter exists.” Additionally, Vitringa, an 18th century scholar, said that it was “forbidden by Jewish tradition for women to speak in the synagogue.” Bushnell also comments that the Talmud remanded women to keep silent because according to Rabbi Eliezer “the voice of a woman is filthy nakedness.” [21] Bushnell points out that Scripture supports the exact opposite of what verse 34 is claimed to prevent. She rhetorically asks: “what is to be done with the hundred and one other ‘laws’ in the O.T. opening the mouths of women?” Bushnell reminds us that Scripture declares: “Let the redeemed of the Lord say so and let everything that hath breath praise the Lord.” How could Paul command Let the women keep silence immediately after exhorting the congregation of women and men to covet to prophesy in the context of the church (14:1) and then immediately conclude with an exhortation to covet to prophesy and forbid not to speak in tongues (14:39)? [22] Sir William Ramsey (1851-1939), Professor at Oxford and Aberdeen, was the most widely accepted authority on Paul in the early 1900’s. He writes: “we should be ready to suspect Paul is making a quotation from the letter addressed to him by the Corinthians whenever he alludes to their knowledge, or when any statement stands in marked contrast either with the immediate context or with Paul’s known views.” Ramsey’s point is clearly applicable to vv.34-35. [23] Pastor Grace Ying May asks the question: “How could Paul, having made such an exhortation in 1 Cor. 11:5, suddenly change his mind and forbid women in the very same congregation from speaking in church? Such an interpretation makes Paul not only a confused writer but also an uninspired one and would flatly contradict what Paul says about women prophesying in church in 1 Corinthians 11:5.” [24] David W. Odell-Scott, Professor of Philosophy at Kent State University, argues that the grammatical structure and content of the text indicates that verses 34 and 35 were quotations from a Corinthian letter to Paul, which he immediately rebukes. “Paul replies in verse 36 with a two-fold negative rhetorical query: What! Did the word of God originate with you, or are you the only ones it has reached?” [25] Sharyn Dowd, Professor of Religion at Baylor University, in a 1991 article said: “This interpretation of verses 34-35 as a Corinthian slogan which Paul rejects has been gaining ground in recent years.” Those who have made this argument in various forms, include the following in chronological order: Katharine C. Bushnell, (1889); Jessie Penn-Lewis, (1919); Helen Barrett Montgomery (1924); J. A. Anderson, (1933); Joyce Harper, (1974); Walter C. Kaiser, (1976); Guy B. Dunning, (1977); N. M. Flanagan and E. Hunter Snyder, (1981); David W. Odell-Scott, (1983, 1987, 1989); Chris U. Manus, (1984); Charles H. Talbert, (1984, 1987); Gilbert Bilezikian, (1985); Gordon D. Fee, (1987); Robert W. Allison, (1988); Linda McKinnish Bridges, (1989, 1990).[26] The Biblical Rebuke of Verse 36. Some modern commentators who view 1 Cor. 14:34-35 as a declarative statement note that Paul, beginning in verse 36, rebukes the Corinthians for various reasons, including their pride. Verse 36 does begin with a rebuke, but Paul is rebuking the “slogan” (vv. 34-35) that was being used to prohibit women from speaking in church. This reason certainly seems to be why verses 34-35 appear in Scripture. Perhaps Paul’s reason to include this quote was obvious to the Corinthians. However, it has been correctly observed that no one today has independent access to Paul’s mind. The only record available for our consideration is that of the historical written text and writings of others. Paul writes to correct the error of the Oral Law of the Jews or anyone else who wants to prohibit women from speaking in church. Paul’s immediate and strong rebuke beginning in verse 36 can be viewed as a correction to those men who held to the Oral Law of the Jews. Bibles have variously translated verse 36 as follows: What! Came the word of God out from you or came it unto you only? (KJV) Did the word of God originate with you? Or are you the only people it has reached? (NIV) Do you think that the knowledge of God’s word begins and ends with you Corinthians? Well, you are mistaken! (NLT) A footnote of the Spirit-Filled Life Bible says of this passage: “One other view sees vv. 34, 35 as Paul quoting from the Judaizers’ letter to him in beginning a new paragraph. Proponents of this view then see v. 36 as his rhetorical answer, essentially saying, What? Men only? Nonsense! (p. 1742). Summary of the Evidence Favoring the Quotation View A substantial body of internal and external evidence exists to conclude that verses 34-35 could not have been authored by Paul. Internally, there is not one verse in the Old Testament that Paul could quote to support such a declaration. Nor is Paul alluding to any general Genesis passage to support a view opposite from his stated declaration in 1 Corinthians that women can pray and prophesy in church. As previously discussed, Paul is quite specific when referring to the Old Testament to prove his point. The extensive, eternal evidence points to the fact that Paul is quoting a saying from the Oral Law of the Jews that prohibited women from speaking in the synagogue. Oral Jewish laws do not constitute Scripture and are not authoritative for the body of Christ. Scholars also point out that Paul never appeals to the “law” as guidance for the Christian Church. Scripture tells us that God calls and uses anyone to minister regardless of gender. Paul has just finished telling the Corinthians that women can pray and prophesy in church. In verse 36, Paul corrects the Judaizers’ error. Therefore, interpreting verses 34-35 as a quotation with an immediate rebuke remains a contextually viable and the preferred option. CONCLUSION Verses 34-35 do not prohibit women from speaking in the church in either pulpit ministry, teaching, preaching, praying, prophesying, or any other speaking function. These verses represent a quotation, which is the most plausible and correct interpretation. Paul is quoting a saying from the Oral Law of the Jews which is not intended to be understood as the writer’s original declaration. The evidence is compelling, diverse, and objective. This view also allows for the natural flow of thought to remain uninterrupted with verses “34-35” noted as a quotation and a rebuke beginning in verse 36. Paul also has no need to specifically address women as the only cause of “interrupting the service” as some scholars suggest. Paul’s conclusion in verse 40 is more than adequate to tell the Corinthians that both men and women must be careful to minister in the gifts of the Spirit in an orderly fashion. The focus of Chapter 14 is on the proper use of spiritual gifts, tongues and prophecy. Paul’s closing exhortation, beginning in verse 39, is a fitting conclusion: Therefore, my brothers and sisters, desire earnestly to prophesy, and do not forbid to speak in tongues. But let all things be done properly and in an orderly manner. A PERSONAL OBSERVATION It is a travesty that men have systematically denied women the opportunity to utilize the full extent of their gifts for God’s glory. This denial is based on a few highly problematic passages in Scripture, such as 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 and 1 Timothy 2:12. Perhaps the obvious must again be stated: Sound hermeneutical principles warn against drawing unwarranted inferences from passages fraught with numerous interpretive issues. Yet, despite this knowledge, scholars, church leaders, and lay people continue to utilize such passages to deny or limit women the full exercise of their God-given gifts. Scripture teaches us that the gifts and callings of God are given to all members of the body of Christ by the Holy Spirit (Rom. 12:3-8; I Cor. 12:4-11; Eph. 4:7-11; I Pet. 4:10-11). None of these gifts or offices is the exclusive prerogative of men. I believe this oppressive behavior against women grieves the Holy Spirit and hinders the Spirit’s work in the Church. Much confusion in the church today over “women in ministry” results from Bible scholars and others who fail to rightly divide and present God’s truth. Many evangelical scholars have boldly attempted to break down traditional assumptions and biases that prevent women from speaking and ministering in churches as pastors and teachers of the Word. A tremendous obstacle still remains. Bibles generally do not present alternative interpretive options of many “problem passages.” First Corinthians 14:34-35 illustrates this point. Most people read these passages as a declaration without knowing about the quotation option. Bible translators should be more diligent in presenting all views on particularly difficult passages. Someday all Christians will stand before God to give an account of their lives and actions. We may be asked: What have you done with the women I have anointed to minister in My Church? Did you hinder or accept these women? My prayer is that more Christian leaders and lay people not hinder the move of the Holy Spirit in the lives of women called to ministry. Then, and only then, will God’s work go forth with greater effectiveness and power to accomplish His purposes. NOTES________________________ 1 D. A. Carson, Exegetical Fallacies, Second Edition (Grand Rapids: Baker Books, 1996), 139-140. 2 Robert Frew, ed., Barnes Notes on the New Testament: I Corinthians 274. 3 J. D. Douglas, ed., New Commentary on the Whole Bible: Old Testament Volume (Wheaton, IL: Tyndale House, 1990), electronic edition. 4 David K. Lowery, John F. Walvoord & Roy B. Zuck, eds. The Bible Knowledge Commentary: An Exposition of The Scripture by Dallas Seminary Faculty, New Testament Edition (Hiawatha, Iowa: Parsons Technology, Inc., 1997), electronic ed. 5 Leon Morris, The First Epistle of Paul to the Corinthians (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 2000), 198. 6 F.F. Bruce, The New Century Bible Commentary I & II Corinthians (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1971), 135-136. 7 William W. Klein, Blomberg, Craig L., Hubbard, Robert L. Jr., Introduction to Biblical Interpretation (Dallas, Texas: Word Publishing, 1993), 362. 8 C. K. Barrett, A Commentary on the First Epistle to the Corinthians (New York: Harper & Row, 1968), 332-333.; Hans Conzelman, 1 Corinthians (Philadelphia: Fortress Press, 1975), 246; Gordon D. Fee, The New International Commentary on the New Testament, the First Epistle to the Corinthians (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1989), 705. 9 Gordon D. Fee, The New International Commentary on the New Testament, the First Epistle to the Corinthians (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1989), 699-700. 10 Ibid., 701-702. 11 Ibid., 707. 12 Carroll D. Osburn, “The Interpretation of 1 Cor. 14:34-35,” in Essays on Women in Earliest Christianity: Volume 1, ed. Carroll D. Osburn (Joplin, Missouri: College Press Publishing Company, 1995), 223-224. 13 Ibid., 241. 14 D.W. Odell-Scott, “Editorial dilemma: the interpolation of 1 Cor 14:34-35 in the western manuscripts of D, G and 88,” Biblical Theological Bulletin, (July 22, 2000). Also available from http://articles.findarticles.com/p/articles/mi_moLAL/is_2_30/ai_94332323. 15 Women Priests Catholic Internet Library, “Greek Philosophy on the Inferiority of Women,” [doc.on-line]; available from http://www.womepriests.org/traditio/infe_gre.htm accessed 20 May 2003. 16 Women Priests Catholic Internet Library, “The Rights of Women According to Roman Law,”[doc. on-line]; available from http://www.womenpriests.org/traditio/infe_rom.htm; accessed 20 May 2003. 17 John Gustavson, “Part 2: Women in Christ: A Study in New Testament Principles,” [doc. on-line]; available from http://www.ncinter.net/~ejt/women2.htm; accessed 24 May 2003. 18 Fee, The New International Commentary on the New Testament, 707. 19 Gustavson, “Part 2: Women in Christ: A Study in New Testament Principles.” 20 Adam Clarke, Adam Clarke’s Commentary on the Old Testament (Cedar Rapids: Parsons Technology, Inc., 1999), electronic edition. 21 Katharine Bushnell, God’s Word to Women (Oakland, CA: K. Bushnell, 1930), para.201-202. 22 Ibid., para. 210-211. 23 Ibid., para. 205. 24 Grace Ying May and Hyunhye Pokrifka Joe, “Setting the Record Straight: A Response to J. I. Packer’s Position on Women’s Ordination” Priscilla Papers 11, no 1 (Winter 1997), 1-10. 25 D. W. Odell-Scott, “Let the Women Speak in Church: An Egalitarian Interpretation of 1 Cor. 14:33b-36,” Biblical Thinking Bulletin 13 (1983): 90-93. 26 Sharyn Dowd, “Helen Barret Montgomery’s Centenary Translation of the New Testament Characteristics and Influences” [doc.on-line]; available from click here. See Sharyn Dowd’s footnote #38 for a more comprehensive list of source material and writers who support the view that 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 is a quotation or oral rabbinic saying, not a scriptural command. ——————————————————————————– Reprinted with permission from: God’s Word to Women http://www.godswordtowomen.org/ ——————————————————————————– |
| Iron Sharpening Iron In regard to: Did Paul Really Say, “Let the Women Keep Silent in the Churches”? Article by Dennis J. Preato Comments by Laura Lee (Bismarck, North Dakota) |
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| This is a great article from which we can all learn. There were a few things I need to bring attention to here. Find these points highlighted in yellow within the article itself: #1- Paul’s known teachings that we have been liberated from the law (Rom. 3:28; 6:14, 7:16, 8:2; Gal 3:11, 13, 4:5, 5:18, etc.). We have been liberated from the law. Since Paul claims that we have been liberated from the law, how could he appeal to it? Paul also fought against the religious zealots of his day who tried to impose the requirements of the Old Testament’s written and oral laws on New Testament believers in Christ. In this passage you can pretty much tell the author probably believes the Law of God has been done away. We see nothing in the Old Testament or the New Testament showing the Law of God has been done away, so on this point we are in disagreement with this author. #2- He also notes that Paul never appealed to the “law” for the guidance of the Church of Christ. On the contrary, he declared that believers were dead to the law by the body of Christ” (Rom. 7:4) so that they might serve in newness of spirit and not the oldness of the letter (Rom. 7:6). [19] Again, we see the author does not believe the Law of God is to be kept today, so we do not agree with this passage. #3- Scholars also point out that Paul never appeals to the “law” as guidance for the Christian Church. And again we disagree with this passage. The entire Church of God is to be guided by the Law of God via the Holy Spirit of God. |
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